I applaud Samuel Goldman for pointing out that, in Locke’s theory, the “right” to property derives from the act of (or at least the intent to) make productive use of same. Locke is properly understood as a fore-runner of Marx’s labor theory of value.
Without carrying a brief for Locke’s theory in general (much less its application to the case of the appropriation of land in the Americas), I wonder whether anyone has undertaken the project of applying Locke’s theories to intellectual property. It seems to me that if “waste” land has no proper owners, the same should logically be true of intellectual property. Might such an application be used to justify clearing out the stacks of defensive “patents” acquired in order to retain the right to sue someone who actually makes use of the patented innovations?



Why should ideas have property rights? Property rights are necessary for things that have exclusive use. If I eat an apple, nobody else can use the apple. While I am typing on my keyboard, nobody else can use it. These things are properly called property and have titles or property rights. Ideas do not have exclusive use. My use of an idea does not impair anyone else in any way to use the same idea. Ideas do not require property rights to avoid conflict and should not be considered property.